Tuesday, January 5, 2016

On the Meaning of Meaninglessness

Gangadeanians often talk about meaninglessness. Well, they don't quite talk about it if by that we mean that they explain it. However, they mention the notions meaning and meaninglessness. For instance, they suggest that if some things are not clear, then meaninglessness follows. But by 'clear' they mean absolute epistemic certainty. There's a lot packed into their notion of epistemic certainty, too and as a corollary into their notion of clarity and thus their concept of meaning/meaninglessness. As I've mentioned, one can push back on each of these notions. Perhaps, something can be clear without it being clear in the manner in which Gangadean and his people privilege. After all, they don't have a monopoly on our concepts or words. They need to earn such a status. Suppose I started announcing that the nature of God is one that is finite temporal and changing in much the same way that Gangadean claims that God is infinite, eternal and unchanging. You might think that my concept of God is just mistaken. At the very least you're going to want me to motivate my concept over that of alternative conceptions. I can't just tell you that from here on out, the nature of God is one that is finite, temporal and changeable or at least I can't make it the case via my pronouncements. In the same way, Gangadean can't just assert that reason is the laws of thought, or that for something to be clear, the opposite of it must be impossible and make it so. Just like he can't merely assert that knowledge is maximally justified true belief, or that the kind of knowledge that matters as it pertains to God is the kind that consists in absolute certainty. I mean he can strictly speaking say those things, but it doesn't make them true or believable solely in virtue of the fact that he's said those things. Moreover, he can't merely tell you that if nothing is clear (under his understanding of the concept of clear) that meaningless follows. He's got to argue for each of these points and he's got to provide knockdown deductive supports for each of them if he's being consistent with his own system.

It recently occurred to me that the common Gangadeanian line that if nothing is clear, then all is meaningless, is just another assertion that people tend to accept because it has the feeling of truth or seems, intuitively, correct. But the question remains whether we have good reasons to accept such a thing. Actually for Gangadean, the question is whether he's proven such things. I don't see it. One issue concerns the notion of meaninglessness. It isn't obvious what Gangadean means by meaninglessness and I've already discussed before how the word 'meaning' has various different meanings. There's the meaning of words and expressions which may be the sense and reference of a word/expression or to use contemporary terms, their intension and extension. There are the truth conditions associated with words and expressions which are standardly thought to be somehow connected to their intensions. But these are difficult matters that linguists and philosophers working in semantics have had great trouble (and minor success) at capturing. Suffice it to call this sort of meaning, linguistic meaning. Is Gangadean claiming that if some things are not clear, then we are without linguistic meaning? If so, what could justify that kind of claim other than raw intuitions? Sometimes it sounds like this is the kind of meaning that Gangadean intends. For instance, he says that meaning is more basic than truth and that you can't determine whether a sentence is true without knowing what it means. Since he's dealing with sentences and truth, it seems like he's talking about linguistic meaning. But he also seems to reach beyond sheer linguistic meaning when he speaks of meaninglessness.

For example, I take it that there is also a sort of existentialist notion of meaning which has to do with life purpose. This is the sense in which, in ordinary language, we say things like, "life has no meaning". Indeed he speaks of nihilism when rational justification is not possible in some domain of philosophy. This captures the sense in which meaning is a property of life or perhaps events. But once again I don't see how absolute epistemic certainty is required for this kind of meaning. Why can't a person live their lives with purpose without absolute certainty? Where is the argument that this is utterly inconsistent? I take it that the questionable inference is taken for granted by the Gangadeanians because it seems intuitive to them.

Finally, there's perhaps a third kind of meaning which is something very general like intelligibility. This one is a bit difficult to separate from meaning in the linguistic sense or perhaps even from the existentialist notion. After all, presumably a sentence can be unintelligible in which case we're inclined to say that the sentence is meaningless. But there is also a sense in which epistemic inquiry could be meaningless or futile. If we can't form rational beliefs, no matter how hard we try, then forming beliefs with the aim of forming them rationally might be futile. You might even say that the aim of forming rational beliefs under such conditions is meaningless. And I get hints of this from Gangadean's general system.

This makes me think that for Gangadean, meaning is a very broad, catch all notion which has aspects of linguistics, life purpose, and general intelligibility. It is this kind of meaning that we are without if some things are not clear according to him. Notice if meaning captures all three of these senses, then his claim that meaningless follows from the lack of clarity is much stronger than we initially thought. That is, meaning in the way that he thinks of it, is a conjunction of linguistic, existentialist and general intelligibility conditions. So by calling into question the link between clarity and meaning in any one of the three senses, a fortiori, we call into question the link between clarity and the conjunction of all three. Indeed I've called into question all three independently so in essence have called into question the stronger claim.

It isn't obvious to me why we need absolute certainty about anything, in order for us to have intelligibility in the world. Just like it isn't obvious why some things must be clear in order for our words to refer to things and/or propositions. Similarly, why do we need absolute certainty about things in order for our lives to have purpose?

In the end, on Gangadean's high standards for what counts as clear, it isn't clear to reason that we need clarity to begin with.

8 comments:

  1. In agreement with your post, it has seemed to me for a while now that Gangadean falsely assumes that, if it were the case that achieving epistemic certainty/clarity was impossible, then life's purpose would be meaningless in the existentialist sense (though, as you point out, it does seem that Gangadean might also be using 'meaning' in the linguistic/broad intelligibility senses). However, this is a really peculiar inference since it seems to me that, even if epistemic certainty with respect to core religious claims could not be achieved, it need not be the case that our doxastic situation is one that should be extensively agnostic, indifferent, or skeptical. In fact, as you discuss in a prior blog post, it could be rational to have mere true beliefs or probabilistic beliefs in the absence of epistemic certainty, and such beliefs could suffice for living an existentially and religiously significant life. Keep up the great work! I enjoy your posts immensely.

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    1. Thanks for the kind comment and I'm glad that you're enjoying the posts. I'm more glad that you can see what I'm saying.

      Note I have talked to Gangadean about this issue and put up a post sometime ago about his response and my rebuttal.

      Basically, when I mentioned fallibilism about knowledge and reasoning from probabilities, Gangadean floundered by equivocating. He basically said that if certainty is not possible, then one cannot come to "know" various probabilities. That is, he was saying that to reason from probabilities requires that one know with certainty when something is .9 probable vs. .1 (for instance) and so it presupposes clarity/certainty at the basic level.

      Surprisingly, he seemed entirely unaware of the fact that he had just smuggled in his own idiosyncratic theory of knowledge (i.e., that knowing requires certainty) to make such a response which is question begging. But of course, if knowledge doesn't require certainty in the first place, then it's entirely possible that one know the difference between various probabilities without clarity/certainty at the basic level.

      Alternatively Gangadean has sometimes said that "rational justification" is not possible without clarity at the basic level, but of course this too is not a trivial claim. He seems to have some theory of rational justification that requires certainty, but again he doesn't have the final word in what counts as rational justification. Either way he's got a lot of explaining to do.

      What's most surprising about all of this is that Gangadean seemed utterly clueless about the fact that he has but one among many theories of knowledge just as he has but one of many notions of rational justification. It's almost as if he can't fathom the idea that he's got to argue positively for his theories at this level. How he can get away with such bad philosophy and unclear thinking for so many years is puzzling to me.

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    2. Thanks for sharing Gangadean's response and your corresponding rebuttal. I think you're right that G's response is question-begging, but it also strikes me (at least with respect to certain probability assignments) that his response is misplaced. For example, one might encounter a certain hypothesis from a pre-evidential perspective and nevertheless assign a probability (albeit imprecise in some cases) to the truth of the hypothesis because it seems intuitively plausible (perhaps due to simplicity or scope). For G to challenge how one *knows* that his/her probability assignment in this pre-evidential situation is true would be mistaken because the person was never in a position to know the accuracy of his/her probability assignment in the first place and never presumed to know; but yet, for reasons of getting inquiries started, it was (pragmatically) rational for the agent to take a position on such ur-probability assignments.

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    3. Ah, good point. So another place that one can put pressure on Gangadean's response is to challenge the very assumption that one needs to know probabilities in order to rationally reason from them. In other words, Gangadean presupposes that there's something problematic about not being able to know (with certainty) various probabilities and you are asking why anybody should be bothered by it. Thanks!

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    4. Of course, another reason G objects to using probability as opposed to certainty is that people could make excuses for their unbelief. But the problem with this response to the use of probabilities in reasoning (in addition to the issue you raise about using scripture as less basic to support a theory of knowledge) is that, if the objective probability for God's existence given the evidence in the world is adequately high (say, >0.8) and can be reasonably acquired by everyone, then it would be irrational for people to not believe that God exists and people would not have good grounds for justifying their disbelief; that is, people would not have any rationally acceptable basis for making excuses for their unbelief. For example, suppose a jury is evaluating the evidence for a murder trial and, after sifting through all the evidence presented, determines that it is Pr(0.8) that the defendant committed the murder. I take it that it would be rational for the jury to issue a conviction on the basis of this probability because it is beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant committed the murder, and it would be irrational and overly pedantic for the jury to excuse the defendant on the basis of the negligible Pr(0.2) that he/she did not commit the murder. Likewise, if the probability for God's existence is adequately high, then it would be beyond a reasonable doubt that God exists and irrational/pedantic for people to make excuses for not believing.

      So, basically, I think Gangadean underestimates the use of probabilities and that such usage could nicely cohere with the criterion that unbelief is inexcusable, at least if G were to base inexcusability on more modest beyond-a-reasonable-doubt considerations and not epistemic certainty.

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    5. How would someone calculate the probability for "making an excuse" for not believing a supernatural claim about the nature of reality? Isn't this shifting the burden of proof on to the one who doesn't accept your claim about the existence of God? That's still a logical fallacy, right?

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    6. Thanks for your comments and good question. Your worry seems to be that when dealing with probabilities, there's a problem of where to set the threshold vis-a-vis, inexcusability. Perhaps you think that wherever one ends up drawing the line is going to be arbitrary. So your question is how do we determine where to draw the line which distinguishes "with excuse" from "without excuse." But the main point of my post is to call attention to the fact that Gangadean is playing the same game--he, too is drawing a dividing line. It's just that he sets the bar at "absolute certainty" which is just to draw the line at one extreme end of the spectrum. Hence this is no special problem for probabilistic approaches, indeed probabilistic approaches incorporate certainty of a proposition as the probability assignment of 1 to that proposition.

      On a side note, there are other problems for Gangadean's claim that unbelief is inexcusable if and only if God's existence is clear. I've argued elsewhere on this blog that given Gangadean's commitment to certain Calvinist doctrines, and his view that seeking is necessary (and sufficient) for knowing what is clear, that the unregenerated unbeliever has an excuse even if it were "objectively" clear that God exists. On Gangadean's commitments such a person can't possibly seek without a change of constitution by God and so can't possibly come to know what is clear apart from an act of God.

      Could you say more about why you think the burden of proof is being shifted and what fallacy you think is being committed? I just don't see them.

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