Tuesday, September 3, 2019

The "need for clarity" again

I came across a recent talk from Surrendra Gangadean on the topic of Clarity. There are lots of issues I take with the preamble (he makes lots of substantive assertions!), but in an effort to keep this note brief, I'll be focusing on what I take to be the central point of departure between me and team-Gangadean namely, the claim conclusion that "some things must be [epistemically] clear." The argument (a purported reductio ad absurdum) for this claim begins at around 13:28.

(1) Nothing is clear (assumed for reductio
(2) If (1), then no distinction is clear.  
(i.e,. basic distinctions between true or false, good or evil, being and non-being are not clear).  
(3) If (2), then no distinction is meaningful.  
(4) If (3), nothing is meaningful.  
(5) If (4) then necessarily,  nihilism (the loss of all meaning) follows. 

If you've been following this blog, then you can probably anticipate where I see the major sleight of hand. Somehow Gangadean went from talking about epistemic clarity (what we can know for certain) in premise (2) to talk about meaning in (3). Without the move from (2) to (3), we see that the argument is invalid (although it's invalid for other reasons, too).

But why should anybody think that we need clarity of basic distinctions in order to have any meaning? Just why is nothing meaningful (including basic distinctions) if we can't have Gangadeanian certainty/clarity of our basic distinctions? Well, this argument is supposed to prove that the loss of meaning follows logically from the lack of clarity. But notice how the move from premise (2) to (3) presupposes that meaning (of basic distinctions) follows from the lack of clarity (of basic distinctions). That's a textbook example of assuming the very thing you need to prove. This is very bad philosophy.

Finally, while I'm officially agnostic about whether or not anything is "clear" in the Gangadeanian sense, I want to add this note for those that might not be so agnostic. Suppose we can't have the kind of Gangadeanian certainty about anything, including about our basic distinctions. Then it's uncertainty, "all the way down." But so what? Importantly, this isn't to deny metaphysical distinctions. We're talking about clarity, which is an epistemological notion. Hence, to deny clarity through and through is merely to accept that our beliefs about such distinctions is less than certain (in the Gangadeanian sense). Such a person can consistently believe that there are distinctions between true and false, good and evil, being and non-being, it's just that their beliefs would be, strictly speaking, less than certain (in the Gangadeanian sense). I see no contradiction or inconsistency, here and it's on the Gangadeanians to prove otherwise.




2 comments:

  1. Are you still accepting comments?

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  2. Romans 1: 20 "For since the creation of the world God’s invisible qualities—his eternal power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that people are without excuse."

    This is where the necessity for Gangadean's clarity comes from. Because he understands if knowing God is not clear, then God is not just in condemning those who do not seek him. Clarity and meaning are necessarily connected in his teachings. I believe he does not draw this out further in this simple argument because it is implied. For me, Paul's statement settles the matter. I wonder did your separation from WF cause you to lose your belief in the infallibility of scripture? I may disagree with SG on multiple points, but each person's journey of faith is much, much more broad than their relationship with one person or one church. I can't help but wonder where you ended up.

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